Proof Of Concept: Open-Source Multi-GPU Rendering!

[Thetargos]

Am I the only one who feels some kind of "Deja Vu"?

From what I could actually make out of the news entry, as worded by our good friend Michael, what Arlie is doing (which is fantastic, by the way) has much resemblance to what back in their day 3Dfx did with the original Voodoo Graphics 3D processors... If you recall, they had a 3D engine that required an already present 2D card. What my understanding was at the time they used the framebuffer from the 2D-only card to attach the 3D rendering of their Voodoo graphics. What this new technique does and how it was described, lauched me 14 years in to the past of consumer 3D graphics rendering.

I find it kind of ironic that we are coming basically to the same point as it all started back when 3Dfx originally introduced their Voodoo graphics 3D processors!

I'd love to see these hybrid modes supported right from the underlying infrastructure of Linux, X and the others.

[d2globalinc]

How about we get linux to support rendering with multiple GPU's across multiple monitors and not just a single monitor? The multiple monitor state of linux is junk. It's been broken with Ubuntu since hardy and the only way to get it to render multiple monitors with composite across multiple video cards is to use a hack for Xserver-XGL which has been retired a long time ago as well..

What ever happend to XrandR 1.3+ supporting this? :S

Sigh...

Unless something ha changed in the latest distributions, but as of Ubuntu Karmic - this is all still broken and not working.. Something that only takes a minute to configure on windows after you download the latest drivers..

- D2G

[mattst88]

I don't see how it is wrong... 'has' is a auxiliary verb that modifies/helps other verbs. For example 'has been pushed upstream' would also be correct. I don't know about anyone else but my english high school curriculum definitely covered helping verbs in this sort of use case. See here http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Auxiliary_verb. In this particular cause 'has' is used for emphasis that is has in fact went upstream.

Or am I completly missing some missuse there?

The issue isn't the auxiliary verb, but the past participle.

You say 'he went' but 'he has gone'. 'he has went' is incorrect.

[Sparkster83]

I don't see how it is wrong... 'has' is a auxiliary verb that modifies/helps other verbs. For example 'has been pushed upstream' would also be correct. I don't know about anyone else but my english high school curriculum definitely covered helping verbs in this sort of use case. See here http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Auxiliary_verb. In this particular cause 'has' is used for emphasis that is has in fact went upstream.

Or am I completly missing some missuse there?

Im surprised this "has went" thing even got discussed. It's like the first thing you learn when you start studying english(non native speakers). It's a plain present perfect, you just dont combine to have with a simple past.

[bridgman]

I don't think "has went" is correct grammar, but it is a very common editing mistake when working on documents after a long day. Typically you start with "went" which is OK, decide to change it to "has gone" which sounds a bit better, and get interrupted mid-way through the change.

[yotambien]

http://www.englishpage.com/verbpage/presentperfect.html

[cb88]

I don't see how it is wrong... 'has' is a auxiliary verb that modifies/helps other verbs. For example 'has been pushed upstream' would also be correct. I don't know about anyone else but my english high school curriculum definitely covered helping verbs in this sort of use case. See here http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Auxiliary_verb. In this particular cause 'has' is used for emphasis that is has in fact went upstream.

Or am I completly missing some missuse there?

[mattst88]

This is the second time I see you write "has went" this month, Michael. Is this a common trend now in American English?

When I was in school, we learnt 'I go, I went, I have gone', and I don't remember going over the dictionary lists for irregular verbs and it being any different there -- go / went / gone. So is this an American English / Internet trend?

No, it's definitely wrong. Every time I've ever pointed anything out like that, I immediately get attacked by a bunch of apologists.

Here's to you for knowing some grammar!

[portets43]

This is the second time I see you write "has went" this month, Michael. Is this a common trend now in American English?

When I was in school, we learnt 'I go, I went, I have gone', and I don't remember going over the dictionary lists for irregular verbs and it being any different there -- go / went / gone. So is this an American English / Internet trend?

F'ckyeah!!

[susikala]

This is the second time I see you write "has went" this month, Michael. Is this a common trend now in American English?

When I was in school, we learnt 'I go, I went, I have gone', and I don't remember going over the dictionary lists for irregular verbs and it being any different there -- go / went / gone. So is this an American English / Internet trend?