Originally posted by alexThunder
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Ubuntu Unity Existed Before The GNOME Shell?
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Originally posted by bkor View PostI do not care at all. It is Canonical who is making a big deal out of it and that they were "first".
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Originally posted by alexThunder View PostThere are far more indicators, which could be used to show the existence of such a project and most, if not all of them, lead to a different date. Therefore picking one of them is just random and, especially subjective and selective (both of the terms seem to be more important here, than I expected first). If you pick all of them, it's pretty much a stable release, but that, of course, ignores all the previous work. That led me to the conclusion, that the concept of "existed before" does not make sense at all.
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Originally posted by moilami View PostHmm, if you continue this please then tell in following posts what were your opinion about who did what first.
I have completely lost what is your opinions in this arguing about arguing
However, I didn't really have an opinion about who was first, instead I questioned in how far you can tell at all, when a software project starts to exist.
To go further, I think, such a project clearly exists, when there is a usable stable release.
On the one hand, still, that doesn't mean there is no existence before. In addition, stability is a rather subjective measure, too, which make the concept of "existed before" even more fuzzy.
On the other hand, you may know that already having a design of the software can be more worth than the code itself. The bigger the project, the more worth to the design.
It is obvious, that the code of the gnome shell was publicly available before Unity's (surprisingly I was accused for doubting that, although I never did). But does this mean, code being written in private doesn't exist at all? I understand, how people consider such code worth nothing in the open-source community, but personal consideration doesn't make this (non-)existent, does it? You could also argue, that Unity is (or at least was) a plain redesign of the Ubuntu Netbook Remix and it should also be obvious, that Unity wouldn't be, where it is right now, without that UNR. In that case, the start of existence was between the time of UNR and the first commit to Unity, but to find an accurate date within that timeline is hardly possible.
Another indicator used in here was the public announcement. As this was not equally sufficient for both projects, it was gone back to public presence of LoC. But on what basis? Why should this actually be a valid move, if there are more indicators, which could be considered? Why only this one? It seems pretty random to me.
There are far more indicators, which could be used to show the existence of such a project and most, if not all of them, lead to a different date. Therefore picking one of them is just random and, especially subjective and selective (both of the terms seem to be more important here, than I expected first). If you pick all of them, it's pretty much a stable release, but that, of course, ignores all the previous work. That led me to the conclusion, that the concept of "existed before" does not make sense at all.Last edited by alexThunder; 13 March 2013, 12:01 PM.
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Hmm, if you continue this please then tell in following posts what were your opinion about who did what first.
I have completely lost what is your opinions in this arguing about arguing
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Originally posted by TheBlackCat View PostYou honestly don't realize that there are honest and dishonest ways to quote, ways to quote that accurately reflect that author's message and ways to quote that twist the author's message into something different? (in case you are unclear, "accurately reflect that author's message" is the honest way, "twist the author's message" is the dishonest one). If this is a new concept to you, try googleing "quote mine".
RahulSundaram mostly only referred to fraction of what I said and ignored or avoided the most, if not all, of previous posts on previous pages. I wonder how this is not selective and therefore hones.
Furthermore I did not twist his message. I outlined that even he used two different concepts of "existed before" just as it fits him, or should I say, selective?
Originally posted by TheBlackCat View PostThe whole point of this thread is which pieces of software existed before the other. To me at least this seems to imply a question of which date chronologically precedes another date. In a discussion of a timeline, what do you think we are supposed to be talking about besides "dates an numbers"? Perhaps the disagreement here isn't about the definition of "existed', but rather the definition of "before".Last edited by alexThunder; 13 March 2013, 10:42 AM.
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Originally posted by alexThunder View PostOn the contrary. I'm aware, that quotes are always selective, unless you quote a whole text (as in literature), which is obviously not the point of quoting at all.
Originally posted by alexThunder View PostTo me it seems, that you're simply not able to talk about more than just dates and numbers.Last edited by TheBlackCat; 13 March 2013, 05:47 AM.
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Originally posted by RahulSundaram View PostAre you really pretending to be unaware what selective quoting means? Next time, try not to mislead others by engaging in that tactics. Since you seem unable to have a honest discussion, I will stop at this point. Have fun!
It's also quite brave to criticize me for not being able to have honest discussions, where you're constantly avoiding and ignoring most of what I post.
To me it seems, that you're simply not able to talk about more than just dates and numbers.Last edited by alexThunder; 12 March 2013, 10:52 PM.
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Originally posted by alexThunder View PostQuotes can be selective? You don't say, Sherlock.
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Originally posted by RahulSundaram View Postyou are engaging in selective quoting.
Originally posted by RahulSundaram View PostAnyone with basic comprehension should be able to see that, I haven't wavered. Try again.
Furthermore I'm sure, anyone with basic comprehension knows the difference between an announcement and presence of code.
And still, you're avoiding the original point. I'm obviously still not alone with that notion (although AdamW might not be your colleague) and even if I was, it's barely a criterium, is it? If so, why do discussions actually exist if people already need to be conviced before?
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